1. Which of the following is not related to the definition of an object?
economic theory?
a) rarity of the good;
b) efficient use of resources;
(+) c) unlimited production resources;
d) maximum satisfaction of needs.
2. Economic theory:
(+) a) suitable for studying all economic systems;
b) suitable for studying only the capitalist system
management;
c) cannot be useful in the study of economic relations,
characteristic of socialism;
d) all previous answers are incorrect.
3. What is an economic good?
(+) a) this is a product of relative rarity;
b) this is everything that serves the benefit of society;
c) this is any product that can satisfy any
need;
d) is any good produced in the economy.
4. The issue of rarity directly relates to:
a) only to the socialist economic system;
b) only to periods of crises and destruction;
(+) c) to all times and all economic formations;
d) only to third world countries with low levels of prosperity.
5. Which of the following does microeconomics study?
b) the number of people employed in the economy;
c) the general price level;
(+) d) grain production and its price dynamics.
6. Economic theory:
a) is not science;
(+) b) cannot predict the future, but can explain
consequences of certain phenomena in economic development;
c) deals exclusively with economic development forecasts
d) includes provisions that are always accepted by everyone
economists.
7. If the economy as a whole is studied, then this is the analysis:
a) normative;
b) microeconomic;
c) positive
(+) d) macroeconomic;
8. The general price level is studied in the course:
(+) a) macroeconomics;
b) microeconomics;
c) management;
d) international finance.
c) increase in interest rate;
12. What are the advantages of a market economy?
(+) a) automatic adaptation of producers to demand, and
consumers to the offer;
b) absence of environmental problems;
c) equal distribution of resources between sectors;
d) firms are focused more on growth than profit.
13. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a market economy?
a) private property;
b) competition;
(+) c) centralized planning;
d) freedom of entrepreneurial choice.
14. Capital is one of the factors of production. Can the following be classified as capital?
(+) a) neither money, nor shares, nor bonds are considered capital;
c) only money;
d) only securities.
15. The production possibilities curve shows:
a) the time when the law of decreasing
productivity;
b) the best possible combination of two goods;
c) the exact quantities of two goods that the economy intends
produce;
(+) d) an alternative combination of goods if this is available
amount of resources.
16. Which factor directly influences the shift of the production possibilities curve to the right?
(+) a) growth of the working age population;
c) inflation;
d) reduction in arms spending.
17. The opportunity costs of a new store are:
a) payment of its personnel;
(+) b) the price of other goods, the production of which is brought into
sacrifice for the construction of this store;
c) change tax rate, paid from the store’s income;
d) interest on a loan taken by the store from a bank.
18. The market mechanism is a way:
a) coordination of these decisions;
(+) b) coordination and synchronization of consumer decisions,
 |
 |
a) excess;
d) all options are incorrect.
IN market economy The problem of “who to produce for” is solved as follows:a) consumers offer prices for goods that are most
want to buy and refuse to buy (or agree to buy
at low prices) goods that are less attractive to them;
(+) b) producers set prices for production
resources (according to utility), thus determining
monetary income of the owner of a specific resource, which is then
can be used to purchase goods and services;
c) based on the distribution of income in accordance with needs
consumers;
d) based on competition, which restrains profit growth,
keeping prices at a level accessible to consumers.
34. The price of the productXis 1.5 rubles. The price of the productYis 1 rub. If a consumer estimates the marginal utility of a goodYat 30 util and wants to maximize your purchase satisfactiongoodsXAndY, then he must accept the marginal utility of the goodXbehind:
a) 15 util;
b) 20 util;
c) 30 util;
(+) d) 45 util.
35. Which of the following markets best represents perfect competition?
b) hairdressing services;
c) cars;
(+) d) shares and bonds of companies.
36. Regulatory economic theory studies:
a) “what is”;
(+) b) what should be;
c) positive trends in economic development;
d) value judgments.
Analysis is a method of cognition that:(+) a) involves dividing the whole into separate component parts and
studying each of these parts;
b) based on the connection of individual parts of the phenomenon studied in
analysis process;
c) based on inferences from the particular to the general;
d) involving the transfer of properties from a known phenomenon or
process to unknowns.
A straight line showing all combinations of resources whose use requires the same cost isa) hyperbole;
b) curve;
c) broken;
(+) d) isocost.
39. Place the following economic schools in the historical sequence of their occurrence:
2. physiocrats,
3. marginalism,
4. classical school,
5. neoclassical direction,
a) 1,2,3,4,5,6 b) 6,5,4,3,2,1 (+) c) 6,2,4,3,5,1 d) 6,2,1, 3,5,4
40. “Positive science,” wrote J. M. Keynes, “may be defined as the body of systematic knowledge relating to ...” (continue):
a) to what is;
(+) b) to what should be;
c) to positive trends in economic development;
d) to value judgments.
Demand is...(+) a) needs supported by the solvency of buyers;
b) a judgment about the value of a particular good;
c) purchasing additional production resources in order to
expansion of production;
d) production individual goods and the dynamics of their prices.
Factors of demand change:A) cash income buyers;
b) consumer expectation;
c) prices for interchangeable and complementary goods;
(+) d) all answers are correct.
Inflation is:(+) a) increase in the general price level;
The benefits are:(+) a) funds available in limited quantities, using
b) funds available in unlimited quantities, using
whose needs are met;
c) the totality of all goods and services representing any
value;
d) the totality of all goods and services without which a person cannot
exist.
60. The mental decomposition of phenomena into their component parts and the isolation of its individual aspects in order to identify what is specific in them that distinguishes them from each other is:
a) economic experiment;
b) synthesis;
(+) c) analysis;
d) deduction.
Variable costs:a) costs depending on the price of the product produced;
(+) b) costs depending on production volume;
c) costs not directly related to a particular product;
d) costs that do not depend on production volume.
Economic theory includes within its scope of study:a) only a market economy;
b) all systems except the planned economy;
c) all systems except transition economy;
(+) d) all economic systems.
The term “reproduction” was first used by:d) P. Samuelson
In the model of the circulation of income and expenses in the national economy:a) there is a productive class, a sterile class and a class
owners;
b) all social production is divided into two divisions:
production of means of production and production of objects
consumption;
c) the main link is the state;
(+) d) the movement of income and expenses is mediated by the resource market and minus current material costs plus, the share of imports in domestic
consumption, share of external borrowings in covering
69. Transfer payments are:
(+) a) payments not conditional on the production of goods and services;
b) late payments;
c) part of the produced product that does not have the form of income;
d) rental income.
70. Keynesian segment on the aggregate supply curve:
a) has a positive slope;
b) has a negative slope;
c) represented by a vertical line;
(+) d) is represented by a horizontal line.
volume of GNP.
The budget exists:a) only from the state;
b) from the state and enterprises real sector economics;
(+) c) for all economic entities;
d) at important federal level structures.
If the government expects to increase taxes by 20, then in order for the level of output to remain unchanged, government purchases should:a) increase by more than 20;
b) increase by 20;
(+) c) increase by less than 20;
d) decrease by 20.
An increase in the cash-deposit ratio will lead to:(+) a) a decrease in the money supply;
b) an increase in the money supply;
c) a decrease in the demand for money;
d) an increase in the demand for money.
A model that considers income distribution from the perspective economic efficiency closer to:(+) a) market model;
b) equalization model;
c) mixed model;
d) theories of social market economics.
According to the Heckscher-Ohlin model of comparative advantage, countries specialize in the production of products based on their comparison:a) production costs;
(+) b) cost of factors of production;
c) marginal utilities of the goods exchanged;
d) labor costs.
TOPIC 1. SUBJECT AND METHOD OF MICROECONOMICS.
Test 1.1
The methodology of economic theory is the doctrine:
a) about the dynamics of economic development;
b) about scientific methods and principles of knowledge of society;
c) about the principles and methods of economic knowledge;
d) none of the above is a methodology of economic theory.
Correct answer: c).
Any methodology is a science of methods. Since we are talking about the methodology of economic theory, its methodology will be a set of methods and principles of economic knowledge. The dynamics of economic development (a) is not so much a method as a separate area of study (subject) of economic theory. The definition of the methodology of economic theory as the doctrine of scientific methods and principles of knowledge of society (b) is not accurate, aimed at studying economic phenomena and processes.
Test 1.2
Positive economics studies:
a) the question “what is?”;
b) the question “what should be?”;
c) positive trends in economic development;
d) value judgments
The correct answer is a).
Positive economics describes economic phenomena and processes as they exist in reality. To the question “what should be?” normative economics answers. Positive trends in economic development are only part of the result of economic analysis. Value judgments are one of the methods for studying economics.
Test 1.3
If the economy is studied as an integral system, then this analysis:
a) microeconomic;
b) macroeconomic;
c) positive;
d) normative.
The correct answer is b).
Macroeconomics is the study of the economic system as a whole. Microeconomics studies the behavior of an individual economic entity or the state of the market for a particular product. Positive and normative analysis is another level of analysis, related not to the breadth of coverage, but to the nature of economic research.
Test 1.4
The method of inference based on generalization of facts is called……….. (specify in one word).
Correct answer: induction.
It should be remembered that induction (guidance) provides a transition from the study of individual facts to general provisions and conclusions, while deduction (inference) makes it possible to move from the most general conclusions to particular ones.
Test 1.5
Part theoretical economics, which explores isolated economic units(economic entities) and individual markets is called ………..(specify in one word).
Correct answer: microeconomics.
It is microeconomics, in contrast to macroeconomics, that studies the behavior of an individual economic entity or markets for individual goods, and not the economy as a whole.
"Economic activity" - Russia produced 130 million tons of coal. Economic science. Division of labor, specialization, trade. GNP is a measure of the economy as a whole. Exchange. Nominal gdp- volume in current prices. Exchange connects consumption, production, distribution. Economics: science and economy. Real GDP – constant prices.
“Economy during the war years” - Sources of post-war economics. growth. The situation at the end of 1941 http://www.pobediteli.ru./. Foreign policy. North Atlantic (to the ports of Murmansk, Severomorsk, Arkhangelsk, Molotovsk (since 1957. Post-war development of the national economy 1945 - 1953. Post-war restoration of the national economy.
“Regional Economics” - Stages of development of science. Basic concepts. Economic zoning. Concept spatial development, factors reflecting the influence of space. Regional economics and management. Methods regional economy. Region: content and operation. Main objectives of the course. Subject and object of regional economics.
“Relations in Economics” - Market relations in modern economy. Capital market: The goods are securities and currency. The market mechanism operates economic laws supply and demand. Every product manufacturer tries to present their product in the best possible way through advertising. Distribution relations.
“Economy and Production” - Labor (human resources). What's happened economics? Extraction of raw materials. Capital. Three main questions of economics. Rent. Economy. Profit. Production and processing of materials and energy. Earth ( Natural resources). Reproducible resources. People's relationships. Percent. Needs. Basic concepts of the topic.
“Economics 2nd grade” - Transport. What machines are used in construction? Bus. Tests for the section “City and rural life”. What types of transport do you know? Truck. What parts of economics do you know? Panel truck. Industry Agriculture Trade Construction Transport. Ambulance. Police. What is economics?
TOPIC 1. INTRODUCTION TO ECONOMICS
?Which of the following is not a major economic purposes society?
Economic growth and increased production efficiency
Full employment
Socio-economic stability
Overcoming the rarity of goods
?What does microeconomics study?
Economy as an integral system
The Science of Making Money
The science of money, capital, prices, production and employment
The science of human behavior in the process of production, distribution and consumption of material goods and services
Science of economic relations and laws, knowledge of which allows you to choose the way to use limited resources for the production of various goods and their distribution for consumption
?A production possibilities curve shows different combinations of two products at:
Full use of all available resources and unchanged technology
Underutilization of labor resources
Changing the amount of resources used
Full use of labor resources
?The entire set of produced labor products breaks down into:
Means of production and consumer goods
Objects of labor and means of labor
Objects of labor and products of labor
Labor and means of labor
?The production possibilities curve shows:
An alternative combination of goods for a given amount of resources
The best possible combination of two products
The exact quantities of the two goods that the farm intends to produce
The time when the law of diminishing returns of factors of production comes into effect
?Choose the correct definition of the term “factors of production”:
= Factors of production are a combination of material and human resources
Factors of production are the resources used for production economic benefits
Factors of production are labor and capital
?“Non-economic” benefits are:
Baked bread
Trees in the forest
Furniture in the store
?Name public goods:
Use of the city park
Hiring a Private Jet
Use of a privatized boat station
Buying a house
?Does not relate to the main economic issues :
Which production method to use
What product to produce
In what quantity should this product be produced?
There is no right answer
?Marginalists rely on economic quantities in economic analysis
Limit
Total
Minimum
?If the amount of free goods in the economy increases, then the production possibilities curve:
Will move to the origin
Moves up left
Will not change
Moves upward to the right from the origin
?An economic good is not:
Hamburger
TV
Journal article
?Limited benefits presupposes that:
Benefits are insufficient by their physical nature
Benefits are insufficient relative to needs
The amount of benefits is small given the available natural resources
The amount of benefits is large given the available natural resources
?For the first time, the ideas of liberalism, minimal government intervention in the economy, were developed:
K. Marx
A. Smith
J. Keynes
?If the economy is studied as an integral system, then this is an analysis:
Macroeconomic
Microeconomic
Positive
Normative
?Resource limitation is a problem that:
Only poor people have it
Exists only in poor countries
All people and societies have
d) never occurs in rich people
?Mercantilism was based on the fact that:
The efficient distribution of the products of labor brings wealth
Wealth is primarily gold and silver
Wealth is created only in agriculture
The production of material goods brings wealth
?What is the main content of the teachings of the physiocrats:
The source of the nation's wealth is labor in agriculture and its product
The primacy of quantitative analysis
Trade is only the exchange of created goods
Liberation of peasants from numerous extortions
?The significance of economic theory in the structure of economic knowledge is that:
Expresses relationships between people in the process social production
Reveals people's relationships to things
Shows attitude towards science
Expresses a person’s attitude towards the natural environment
?In modern economic theory, the Keynesian direction justifies:
Deduction
?Positive economics studies:
What's in economic life society
Topic 1: “Subject and method of economic theory”
- Economy as a special sphere of human life is the object of:
a) systems of natural sciences;
b) systems of social sciences;
c) systems of economic sciences.
Correct answer: c. (P)
- The system of economic sciences includes:
a) sociology;
b) concrete economic sciences;
c) functional economic sciences;
d) technology
Correct answer: b,c, (P)
3. The most complete and specific definition of the subject of economic theory is:
a) economic theory studies activities including the production and exchange of goods;
b) economic theory studies variables whose behavior affects the state of the national economy;
c) economic theory studies the relations of production, distribution, exchange and consumption in their interrelation and interdependence in conditions of limited resources;
d) economic theory radiates money, banking system, capital.
Correct answer: c. (P)
4. Microeconomics as a branch of economic theory studies:
a) economic behavior of individual subjects in a market economy
b) relations between different owners
c) organization of work at the enterprise
Correct answer: a. (P)
5. Macroeconomics as a branch of economic theory studies:
a) the role of the state in the economy
b) global trends economic development humanity
c) the national economy as a single whole
d) processes occurring in the household
Correct answer: c. (P)
6. The main significance of economic theory today is that it:
a) helps entrepreneurs avoid risk
b) gives scientists the opportunity to realize their abilities
c) shows the ways of the best organization of social economy to meet the needs of people
d) reveals to a person the true motives of his behavior
Correct answer: c.
7. Positive economic theory studies:
a) “what is what”?
b) “what should be”?
d) value judgments
Correct answer: a. (P)
- Normative economic theory studies:
a) “what is”?
b) “what should be”?
c) positive trends in economic development;
d) value judgments.
Correct answer: b. (P)
- The methodological function of economic theory is that:
a) it is one of the ideological disciplines;
b) it is an educational discipline;
c) it determines the essence of economic phenomena and possible tools for studying them
Correct answer: c. (P)
- Economic theory:
a) deals exclusively with the predictive characteristics of the development of economic systems;
b) contains provisions that are always accepted by all economists;
c) is not science;
d) cannot predict the future, but can explain the relationships between certain phenomena in economic development.
Correct answer: g. (P)
11. Establish the sequence of emergence of the main economic schools:
a) Marxism
b) institutionalism
c) marginalism
d) physiocrats
e) mercantelists
e) classics
Correct answer: d, d, f, a, c, b.
12. The concept of scientific method includes:
a) ways to optimally use all cognitive tools
b) a set of actual data
c) the worldview of scientists
Correct answer: a)
13. The methodology of economic theory is the teaching:
a) about the dynamics of economic development;
b) about scientific methods and principles of knowledge of society;
c) about the principles and methods of economic knowledge.
Correct answer: c. (WITH)
14. What research methods economic processes arose in the twentieth century:
a) synthesis
b) modeling;
c) economics and mathematics;
d) analysis;
e) ascent from the abstract to the concrete.
Correct answer: b, c. (P)
15. If the economy is studied as an integral system, then this analysis:
a) microeconomic;
b) macroeconomic;
c) positive;
d) normative.
Correct answer: b.(P)
16. Economic school, which expressed the interests of the trading bourgeoisie of the era of primitive accumulation of capital:
a) mercantilism
b) fetishism
c) physiocrats
d) marginalism
Correct answer: a,.(C)
17. E. Gaidar’s shock therapy was based on the theory:
a) Keynesianism
b) public choice
d) rational expectations
e) monetarism
Correct answer: d.(C)
18. Economic benefits are characterized by:
a) unlimited quantity;
b) created in the process of labor;
c) rarity;
Correct answer: b, c (C)
19. Limited resources are:
a) lack of materials for the operation of the enterprise;
b) characteristics of only pre-industrial systems;
c) the impossibility of fully satisfying the growing needs of humanity;
Correct answer: c. (WITH)
20. A non-economic good is:
a) submarine;
b) leisure and entertainment;
c) wind energy;
c) knowledge.
Correct answer: c. (P)
21. The economic system determines:
a) what, where, for whom to produce;
b) what, where, how to produce;
c) when, why and who will produce;
Correct answer: b. (WITH)
22. Economic theory is the science of:
a) how to improve personal well-being;
b) on state regulation of supply and demand;
c) about the essence of ongoing economic processes and the laws of their development;
d) about the means of satisfying human needs;
Correct answer: c, (C)
23. Scientific foresight is related to:
a) with an assumption;
b) with forecasting
c) with justification of the hypotheses put forward;
d) with the transformation of put forward hypotheses into theory.
Correct answer: b. (WITH)
24. One of the main directions of development of modern economic theory is:
a) school of institutionalism;
c) Keynesian school;
d) school of mercantilism;
d) classical English school
Correct answer: a.(P)
25. The fundamental problem of modern economic theory is:
a) supply and demand;
b) efficiency and fairness;
c) entrepreneurship and profit;
d) limited resources and choice
e) production and consumption.
Correct answer: g.(P)
26. Limited resources are a problem that:
a) exists only in poor countries
b) associated with certain types of economic systems
c) depends on the political orientation in the country
c) never occurs in rich countries
d) exists in all countries.
Correct answer: g. (C)
27. The study of economics as an integral system is:
a) macroeconomic analysis;
b) hypothetical analysis;
c) descriptive analysis;
d) microeconomic analysis.
Correct answer: a. (C)
28. Microeconomics is a branch of economic theory that studies:
a) how can society achieve full employment;
b) how consumers, firms and resource owners behave in the market;
c) problems of accelerating economic growth;
d) issues of economic security.
Correct answer: b.
29. Macroeconomics determines:
a) distribution of limited resources between various areas their use;
b) a set of factors, phenomena and processes operating at the interstate level;
c) totality economic factors and processes operating within a particular country;
d) mega-economy;
Correct answer: c. (WITH)
30. The economic system of Sweden is:
a) command economy
b) market economy
c) mixed economy
d) traditional economy
e) transition economy
Correct answer: c.
Topic 2. “General principles of economic development.”
1. The most accurate list of factors of production considered by economic theory:
- land, labor, capital, entrepreneurship
- land labor, means of production, entrepreneurial ability
3. resources, technology, entrepreneurship
Correct answer: 1. (P)
2. The choice of ways to use limited resources is rational if it:
1. ensures minimization of project execution time
2. leads to savings in all factors of production
3. minimizes costs and maximizes beneficial effects
4. creates opportunities to extract monopoly profits
Correct answer: 3. (P)
3. Solving the problem “What to produce?” reflects:
- availability of opportunities to sell natural resources
- a set of goods that satisfy the needs of the minimum subsistence level
- implementation of decisions of local authorities
- a set of goods that can satisfy current and future needs
Correct answer: 4. .(C)
4. Opportunity costs are called:
- costs of implementing all possible projects in the short term
- costs of implementing desired projects in the long term
- costs of developing pilot projects in the medium term
- the cost of realizing the best unrealized opportunity
Correct answer: 5. .(C)
- The price scale is:
a) one of the functions of money
b) the ratio of prices of goods
c) the amount of gold taken as 1 monetary unit
G) purchasing power money
Correct answer: c.
6. What resources involved in the production process become factors of production:
Correct answer: 1A, 2B, 3B, 4A, 5A, 6A. (WITH)
- The opportunity cost of a new residential building is determined by:
a) the cost of building this house
b) the least expensive way to build this house
c) the number of other goods that had to be given up in order to build this house;
d) The amount of profit that the construction company will receive
e) Income received from the sale of apartments in this building.
Correct answer: c. (WITH)
8. The choice of production factors and their combinations in a market economy is carried out:
- taking into account market prices for resources
- in accordance with the economic doctrine of development
- in accordance with their strategic purpose
- depending on natural and climatic conditions
- taking into account their wear and tear
Correct answer: 1. .(C)
9. Market economy is focused on:
1.satisfying social needs for a specific good
2.satisfying social needs
3.meeting the strategic political needs of the nation’s development
4.meeting effective demand
5.following instructions from authorities
Correct answer: 4. (P)
10. Commodity production is the organization of the national economy in which products are produced:
1. cooperative producers
2. associated manufacturers
3. manufacturers forced into the production of this product
4. separate manufacturers
Correct answer: 4. .(P)
11. Full use of all resources shows:
a) a shift of the production possibilities curve to the right
b) a point outside the production possibility line
c) a point inside the production possibilities frontier
d) a point on the production possibilities line
e) shift of the production possibilities curve to the left
Correct answer: c. (WITH)
12. The main goal of social production of goods and services:
a) increase in tax revenues
b) ensuring full employment of the population
c) use of minerals
d) meeting social needs
e) achieving social justice
Correct answer: g. (P)
a) the relationship of a person to a thing
b) existing property ties secured by law
c) relations between people regarding the appropriation and alienation of various goods d) the right to use a thing
Correct answer: c.
14. The initial criterion for distinguishing types of economic systems are:
a) stability of economic growth
b) the level of well-being of society members
c) a way of coordinating economic life
d) efficiency of use of natural resources
Correct answer: c)
15. The consumer properties of a product are not related to the level of development of a nation and can only satisfy personal needs. Is this statement true?
Correct answer: 2. .(P)
16. Within the framework of the theory of labor value, goods are commensurable if they:
1. identical properties
2. equal utility for different subjects
3. ability to satisfy the same need
4. the same amount of labor spent on their production
5. natural and climatic conditions in which they were produced.
Correct answer: 4. (P)
17. Proponents of the theory of labor value believed that value is:
1. the total utility that a product brings to society
2. the individual utility that a product brings to society
3. the amount of individual labor spent on the production of goods
4. the amount of socially necessary labor. spent on the production of goods
5. the amount of total labor. spent on the production of goods.
Correct answer: 4. .(C)
18. Specific labor creates:
- price
- use value
- total cost
- marginal utility
- total utility
Correct answer: 2. .(P)
19. Specific types of labor are so different from each other that it is possible to reduce them to homogeneity only through measurement in time. Is this statement true?
Correct answer: 1. .(P)
20. Abstract work acts as:
1. individual labor costs
2. costs of the total labor of a hired worker
3. the cost of physical and mental energy of the employee
4. specific form of activity.
Correct answer: 3. .(C)
21. Individual time is the cost of working time:
a) a separate manufacturer
b) average in a given society
c) the maximum possible in a given society
Correct answer: a.(P)
22. Socially necessary time is time. which is required to create a specific product when:
1. top level equipment, technology and production organization
2. favorable natural resource conditions
3. maximum production intensity
4. average, normal production conditions for the modern period
5. minimum productivity and labor intensity
Correct answer: 4. .(P)
23. The value of a product is directly proportional to labor productivity. Is this statement true?
Correct answer: 2. .(P)
24. Indicate what characteristics of noble metals have singled them out for the role of universal equivalent:
a) qualitative homogeneity
b) high melting point
c) high cold resistance
d) easy divisibility
d) portability
e) corrosion resistance
g) long-term preservation
h) low specific gravity
Correct answer: a, d, e, f, g.
25. Proponents of the labor theory of value define price as:
- monetary expression of use value
- monetary expression of surplus value
- monetary expression of the costs of specific labor
- monetary expression of the cost of goods
Correct answer: 4.
26. Marginal utility is:
1. the utility of a good that is available in abundance
2. utility of a good that does not have a stock exchange valuation
3. the utility of the entire set of goods available to the subject
4. utility of an additional unit of consumed good
5. the utility of an available amount of a good that is not available in abundance.
Correct answer: 4.
27. The value of money in modern conditions defined:
a) the country's gold reserves
b) their absolute liquidity
c) average price level
d) the amount of money in circulation
e) gold content of the monetary unit
Correct answer: Mr.
28. Goods with absolute liquidity:
a) securities,
b) gold,
c) information,
d) money
e) resources
Correct answer: Mr.
29. The use value of a commodity, labor power, is:
1. the ability to create value greater than the cost of the product itself; labor
2. the ability to create value equal to the cost of the product labor
3. the ability to create value that is less than the cost of the product labor
4. the ability to create value that is qualitatively different from all others
Correct answer: 1. .(P)
30. Capital is:
a) any means of production
b) any money
c) money received as an inheritance
d) cash savings
e) money put into circulation for the purpose of generating income
Correct answer: d.
Topic 3. “Market as an economic system.”
1. Competition in a market economy:
a) exists only among producers;
b) exists only among buyers;
c) is associated with limited resources and the sovereign right of each of the subjects
market to realize its economic potential;
d) exists because it is beneficial to the state.
Correct answer: c). (P)
2. Despite the presence of many disadvantages, the market mechanism has an undeniable advantage. It is expressed:
a) in equal distribution of income;
b) in the stable development of the economy;
c) in the preservation of natural resources;
d) in the efficient allocation of resources.
Correct answer: d) (P)
3. Which of the following characteristics refers to a market economy:
a) competition;
b) state property;
c) centralized planning;
G) state control quality of each product
Correct answer: a). (P)
- Price competition is:
a) price changes
d) cost reduction.
Correct answer: a), d). (P)
5. What problems in a market economy should the state deal with:
a) determine the range of goods and services that society needs, regardless of the tastes and preferences of any group of the population
b) do what the market cannot do
c) distribute cash income in society;
d) provide assistance to a manufacturer who finds himself in a difficult situation;
d) determine what to produce and how much.
Correct answer: b). (WITH)
6. Producers in a market economy produce exactly what people need because...
a) producers agreed and divided the markets for goods and services among themselves;
b) interaction between producers is coordinated by the government;
c) a competition mechanism operates;
D) these goods and services are traditionally produced.
Correct answer: c). (P)
7. The experience of post-war European countries has shown that a market economy, as a rule, is more effective than a command-administrative one. This…
- is due to the fact that in European countries with a developed market economy, high scientific and technical potential has been accumulated, highly qualified personnel have been trained;
b) explained by the action of the competition mechanism;
c) the statement is incorrect;
d) due to the fact that government members in countries with market economies know economic theory better and pursue correct economic policies.
Correct answer: b). (P)
- The market as an economic category is:
a) the place where the seller and buyer meet,
b) a set of connections and relationships between sellers and buyers,
c) subordination of the buyer to the seller
Correct answer: b).
9. In a market economy, the interests of society as a whole will be respected even if everyone strives to achieve their own goals. This is achieved as a result...
a) that the market economy is built on the principles of competition;
b) social responsibility of business leaders;
c) careful planning and coordination of market activities;
d) the market ensures rational distribution of resources and changes in production proportions depending on needs
e) understanding by each citizen of what the public interests are.
Correct answer: d). (WITH)
10. What markets exist in modern conditions:
a) free market,
b) regional market
c) national market
d) world market
Correct answer: a)
- The main subjects of market relations are:
a) state
b) Gazprom
c) buyers
d) collective farm "Voskhod"
d) sellers
Correct answer: a) c) d)
- A competitor in an industry market is a manufacturer that:
a) expands the amount of capital used through diversification
b) increases the volume of production
c) maneuvers prices
Correct answer: b), c).
- Price in a market economy performs the following functions:
a) Stimulating
b) credit
c) accounting
d) fiscal
e) distribution
Correct answer: a)c)e)
- Market infrastructure performs the following main function:
a) determines the volume of production
b) ensures the work of all market entities
c) makes payments to customers
Correct answer: b)
- Objects of market relations can be:
a) economic benefits,
b) services,
c) social relations
d) political benefits
Correct answer: a) b).
16. The solution to the problem of “what to produce” in a market economy involves:
a) with determining the level of specialization of the economy
b) the choice between the production of means of production and the production of consumer goods
c) formation state system production
d) development of competition
d) effective demand
Correct answer: d)
17. What characterizes perfect competition:
A) production volumes of an individual firm
b) the ability of the manufacturer to influence the market price
c) the inability of the manufacturer to influence the market price
d) product quality
e) product differentiation
Correct answer: c)
18. There is an element in the market mechanism in which government intervention can lead to the breakdown of the market mechanism. This:
a) changing demand
b) rate of profit
c) additional demand for capital
e) change in supply volume
Correct answer: d)
Topic 4. “Fundamentals of the theory of supply and demand”
- A horizontal demand curve is completely inelastic.
b) Incorrect
Correct answer: b) P.
2. A simultaneous increase in supply by 12% and demand by 40% will lead to:
a) reducing the price and increasing the quantity of goods
b) establishing a stable price and increasing the quantity of goods
c) reducing prices and reducing the quantity of goods
d) an increase in prices and an increase in the quantity of goods
e) establishing a stable quantity and reducing the price.
Correct answer: d)
Movement along the demand curve will occur in the following cases:
a) Changes in consumer expectations
b) Reducing the price of an interchangeable product
c) Changes in the price of a given product
d) Changes in the supply of goods
Correct answer: c).
4.Which of the following factors can cause an increase in demand for a product?
a) increase in income;
c) decrease in income;
c) increase in the price of a substitute product;
e) an increase in the price of a complementary product;
f) the product has ceased to be fashionable;
Correct answer: a).
5. Item A is normal if
a) an increase in the price of complementary good B leads to a decrease in demand for good A;
b) an increase in consumer income causes an increase in demand for product A;
c) an increase in the price of a substitute product is the reason for an increase in demand for product A;
d) meets the requirements of the law of demand;
e) income and demand for good A are inversely related.
Correct answer: b).
6. The price of a product will fall if:
a) there is a surplus on the market;
b) the current market price is higher than the equilibrium price;
c) the quantity supplied of a product exceeds the quantity demanded for it at the current price;
d) all of the above factors are true;
e) all of the above factors are incorrect.
Correct answer: d).
7. The fact that a fall in the price of a product pushes the producer to reduce its supply is illustrated:
a) the law of supply;
b) the law of demand;
c) change in supply;
d) the very essence of low-quality goods;
d) technological progress.
Correct answer: a).
8. Which of the following factors will shift the supply curve for good “x” to the left?
a) reducing the wages of workers producing goods X;
b) an increase in the cost of equipment with which product x is manufactured;
c) technological improvements in the production of goods X;
d) a situation in which the volume of demand exceeds the volume of supply of product x;
Correct answer: b).
9. If available resources can be used to produce both goods “A” and goods “B”, then A and B are:
a) substitute goods in production;
b) complementary goods in production;
c) substitute goods in consumption;
d) complementary goods in consumption;
d) normal goods.
Correct answer: a).
10. If both demand and supply increase in the same proportion, then:
a) the price rises, sales volume increases;
b) the price falls and sales volume increases;
c) the price and sales volume will not change
d) the price will rise, and sales volume may either rise or fall;
e) the price will decrease and sales volume will either increase or decrease.
Correct answer: c).
11. The law of demand states that other things equal conditions:
a) prices and incomes are directly proportional;
b) income and volumes of trade transactions are directly proportional;
c) prices and volumes of demand are directly proportional;
d) prices and volumes of demand are inversely proportional.
Correct answer: d).
12. If two goods are substitute goods and the price of one of them increases, then the demand for the other goods will be:
a) do not change;
c) fall.
Correct answer: b).
13. The law of supply states that, other things being equal:
a) price and volume of demand are inversely proportional;
b) price and supply volume are inversely proportional;
c) income and supply are not interrelated;
d) price and quantity supplied are directly proportional.
Correct answer: d).
14. Changes in the volume of supply may be due to changes in:
a) demand
b) income;
Correct answer: d).
15. A price above the equilibrium price can lead to the following consequences:
a) shortage;
b) inflation;
c) market equilibrium
d) excess supply;
Correct answer: d).
16. In markets, the equilibrium price is determined by:
a) the decision of buyers
b) government decision
c) decision of the manufacturers
d) supply and demand
Correct answer: d)
17. Excessive supply of goods on the market is a consequence of the fact that:
b) the price of a product is below the equilibrium
c) the price of a product is higher than the equilibrium price
d) the volume of production of this product has decreased
e) the volume of demand for this product has increased
Correct answer: c)
18. Excess demand for a product (shortage) is a consequence of the fact that:
a) the price of the product is equal to the equilibrium price
b) the price is below the equilibrium price
c) the price is higher than the equilibrium price
d) the quantity supplied has decreased
d) the quantity supplied has increased
Correct answer: b)
19. Other things being equal, an increase in demand will lead to:
a) to an increase in the equilibrium price and an increase in supply
b) to a decrease in equilibrium price and supply
c) to a decrease in the equilibrium price and an increase in supply
d) to an increase in the equilibrium price and a decrease in supply
Correct answer: a)
20. The elasticity of supply is influenced by:
a) availability of substitute goods on the market
b) time factor
c) the share of expenses in the consumer budget for this product
d) consumer income level
d) no factor influences
Correct answer: b).
21. Interchangeable goods:
a) are produced simultaneously
b) have the same price
c) complement each other when consumed
d) compete with each other in the market
e) stimulate each other's sales
Correct answer: d)
22. Complementary products:
a) are produced simultaneously
b) have the same price
c) complement each other in the process of consumption
d) compete with each other in the market
Correct answer: c).
23. The reason for the shift in the supply curve may be:
a) changing consumer tastes
b) increase in buyer income
c) reduction in the price of goods
d) introduction of new income taxes
Correct answer: d)
24. The reason for the shift in the demand curve can be everything except:
a) rush demand
b) increasing the income of buyers
c) reduction in the price of goods
d) change in fashion
Correct answer: c)
25. If an increase in the price of a product by 1% causes an increase in supply by 1.2%, then this supply:
a) elastic
b) inelastic
c) has unit elasticity
d) absolutely elastic
d) absolutely inelastic
Correct answer: a).
26. If the price elasticity of demand is 2.5, and demand increased by 10%. then the percentage increase in price will be:
Correct answer: c).
27. The elasticity of demand is influenced by:
a) consumer income level
b) consumer preferences
c) time factor
d) none of these factors influences.
Correct answer: a)
Topic 5: “Theory of consumer behavior.”
- Indicate the main factors influencing consumer behavior:
c) need;
d) proposal.
Correct answers: a), c), d). (P)
- According to the law of diminishing marginal utility, the marginal utility of each additional unit of the same good as consumption increases is:
b) decreases;
c) remains unchanged.
Correct answer: b). (P)
- Marginal utility is:
- a measure of the overall satisfaction obtained from the consumption of goods over a certain period of time;
b) additional utility from each subsequent unit of consumed product
c) a change in the total utility of a good caused by a change in consumer income.
Correct answer: b). (P)
- The indifference curve shows:
- all combinations of goods under which total amount costs equal to income;
b) different sets of goods and services.
c) the entire set of combinations of two goods that have the same utility for the consumer.
Correct answer: c). (P)
- Under which of the following conditions is consumer equilibrium satisfied?
- when the indifference curve has two intersection points with the budget line;
b) when the indifference curve does not intersect the budget line;
c) when the indifference curve touches the budget line at one single point.
The correct answer is c). (WITH)
- The ability of consumers to purchase more goods as a result of lower prices is explained by:
- law of diminishing marginal utility;
b) income effect;
c) the substitution effect.
Correct answer: b). (P)
- The negative slope of the indifference curve reflects the fact that:
- the consumer has limited income;
- provided that the consumption of one of the goods increases, it is necessary to reduce the consumption of another good;
- consumer preferences are explained by the prices of the goods purchased.
Correct answer: (b). (P)
- The budget constraint equation represents the equation of the straight line:I = …………………
Answer: I=P1X + P2Y (P)
- The difference between marginal utility and total utility is………………..
Correct answer: that marginal utility characterizes the change in total utility. (P)
- Fill in the blanks in this table:
Correct answers: (d) = 21; (d) = 19; b) = 7; d) = 3. (PS)
- In this graph, the consumer's equilibrium is indicated by the point………………….
Correct answer: E
12. Find the correspondence between the definitions and their content:
b) need;
c) general utility;
d) marginal utility.
1) a change in total utility caused by a change in the consumption of a given good by one unit, provided that the consumption of other goods remains unchanged;
2) a measure of overall satisfaction received from the consumption of goods over a certain period of time;
- the ability of an economic good to satisfy human needs.
- a person's desire to consume various goods.
Correct answer: a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1. (WITH)
- The tenth candy does not give as much pleasure as the first.
That's an example:
a) law of demand
b) dependencies between supply and demand
c) opportunity cost
d) decreasing marginal utility
Correct answer: d).
- The consumer reaches optimal consumption when:
a) each good purchased brings the same marginal utility
b) achieves maximization of total utility under budget constraint
c) the same amount of money is spent on buying different goods
d) the maximum volume of consumed goods is achieved
Correct answer: b)
15. Check the correct statement:
a) the consumer always prefers more to less;
b) the consumer makes decisions under conditions of limited income;
c) the marginal utility of any good increases as the consumed quantity of a given type of good increases;
Correct answer: b)
a) indifference curve;
b) marginal rate of substitution;
c) budget constraint;
1). the maximum quantity of one good that a consumer is willing to give up in order to obtain an additional unit of another good.
2). the amount of money available that can be spent on purchasing goods;
3). various combinations of economic goods that have the same utility for the consumer.
Correct answer: a-3, b-1, c-2..(C)
17. As the total utility from consuming a good increases, marginal utility:
a) increases
b) decreases
c) reaches a maximum
d) negative
d) equal to zero
Correct answer: b) (P)
- The rate of substitution of one product for another:
a) effective replacement of one good with another
b) expresses diminishing marginal utility
c) equal to the ratio of prices for goods
d) shows the amount of product X that the consumer agrees to give for an additional unit of product Y.
Correct answer: d).
19. The cardinalist theory of utility differs from the ordinalist theory in that:
a) does not consider subjective preferences
b) considers it possible to quantitatively measure utilities
c) does not use models
Correct answer: b).
20. Usefulness is:
a) the property of a product to bring any benefit during its use
b) cheapness of the goods
c) product availability
d) variety of goods
Correct answer: a).
21. Sets of goods that have the same utility lie on:
a) budget line
b) one indifference curve
c) one demand curve
Correct answer: b).
22. If the consumer’s income changes, then the budget line:
a) moves
b) does not change its position
c) nothing can be said specifically
Correct answer: a).
23. Consumer choice:
a) choice that maximizes consumption
b) choice that maximizes utility under a limited budget
c) choice that maximizes demand
Correct answer: b)
24. The substitution effect is:
a) a change in demand due to changes in fashion
b) an increase in demand under the influence of rising prices
c) a change in the consumption structure as a result of a decrease in price by one
d) product change real income consumer
Correct answer: c)
25. The income effect is:
a) an increase in demand for expensive goods
b) a change in the consumption structure as a result of a decrease in the price of one product
c) a change in the consumer's real income as a result of price changes
d) changes in demand under the influence of fashion
Correct answer: c)
Topic 6. “The company, its costs and profits
- Normal profit is:
a) state income;
b) an element of accounting costs;
c) an element of internal costs;
The correct answer is c).
- Which of the following definitions most accurately matches the concept of “normal profit”:
a) profit obtained when marginal revenue and marginal costs are equal;
b) the profit received by a typical firm in the industry;
c) the profit that the company would receive in the normal course of business;
d) the minimum profit necessary for the company to remain within a given field of activity;
e) profit that provides the entrepreneur with a comfortable standard of living.
The correct answer is d).
- Centralization of production is:
a) growth of the company using its own funds;
b) the company’s penetration into different industries and areas of activity;
c) growth of the company due to the addition of other industries to it through mergers and acquisitions;
The correct answer is c).
4. The relationship that exists between changes in the values of average (AP) and marginal products (MP) indicates that in the point of intersection of the graphs of these quantities:
a) the average product reaches its maximum;
b) the average product reaches its minimum;
c) marginal product reaches its maximum;
d) marginal product reaches its minimum.
The correct answer is a).
- The firm's fixed costs are:
a) workers' wages
b) office rental costs
c) costs of electricity consumed by the active part of fixed capital
d) costs of purchasing raw materials and materials
Correct answer: b)
- The law of diminishing returns means that in the short run:
a) with an increase in the used factors of production, the effect of scale decreases;
b) the volume of output with certain technologies tends to decrease;
c) with an increase in the variable factor of production, with constant constants, the product of this factor increases, reaching its maximum, and then decreases;
d) with an increase in production volume, the value of the marginal product becomes negative.
The correct answer is c).
- Economic costs of the company:
a) exceed internal and external costs by the amount of normal profit
b) do not include internal and external costs
c) determined by external costs
d) consist of internal costs
e) include internal and external costs.
Correct answer: d).
- Internal costs are:
a) costs of equipment maintenance and servicing
b) costs that do not depend on the volume of output
c) the opportunity cost of the entrepreneur's resources
d) the costs of organizing a company
e) environmental protection costs
Correct answer: c)
9. Which of the following statements characterizing the relationship between total, average and marginal product is incorrect?
a) average product continues to increase as long as marginal product increases;
b) average product reaches its maximum level before total product reaches its maximum level;
c) total product reaches its maximum level when marginal product is zero;
d) the marginal product is equal to the average product at the maximum level of the average product;
e) total product decreases if marginal product is less than zero.
The correct answer is a).
- Variable costs include:
a) property tax
b) interest on a bank loan
c) rent
d) wages
Correct answer: d)
- In the long term:
a) all costs are variable;
b) all costs are constant;
c) variable costs are growing faster than fixed costs;
d) fixed costs grow faster than variable costs;
d) all costs are implicit
The correct answer is a)
13. In the short run, a firm produces 500 units of output. Average variable costs are $2, average fixed costs are $0.5. Total costs will be:
a) $0.25; b) $1250; c) $750; d) $1100; d) cannot be determined based on available data
The correct answer is b)
14. The opportunity costs of a new stadium are:
a) payment for his security;
b) the price of construction of the stadium next year;
c) changing the tax rate, which is paid from the stadium’s income;
d) the price of other goods and services, the production of which was sacrificed for the construction of this stadium.
The correct answer is d)
15.The firm’s gross costs can be defined as the sum:
a) average constants and variable costs
b) average variable and average fixed costs
c) fixed and marginal costs
d) fixed and variable costs
e) constant and average variables.
Correct answer: d)
16. Positive economies of scale mean that:
a) better organization of work is achieved
b) there is a decrease in average costs
c) the marginal productivity of factors of production increases
d) production volume increases
Correct answer: b)
15. The marginal product of a factor of production is:
a) maximum possible release products when using this factor,
b) the volume of output using all factors of production
c) additional output when the factor increases by one
d) output per unit factor
Correct answer: c).
- The profit maximization of a firm is considered main goal V:
a) classical theory;
b) management theory;
c) behavioral theory;
d) evolutionary theory;
The correct answer is a)
- Transaction costs are:
a) costs of determining and protecting property rights;
b) costs of economic dishonesty;
c) costs associated with unexpected circumstances;
d) costs of searching for information;
e) negotiation costs;
e) all of the above are true.
The correct answer is e)
- Long-run average cost curve:
a) is the envelope for the minima of short-term average cost curves
b) is not an envelope for short-term average cost curves
c) is a mirror image of the average product curves
d) characterizes changes in marginal costs
Correct answer: a).
- Accounting profit is:
a) revenue from sales of products
b) the difference between the firm's revenue and opportunity costs
c) the difference between gross income and external costs
Correct answer: c)
- Establish a correspondence between the economic indicators of costs and the formula determining their value:
IZ D E R J KI
average overall average averagemaximum
common constant variables
- FC=TFC:Q
- MC = D TC: D Q
- TC = TFC + TVC
- ATC=TC:Q
- AVC=TVC:Q
- ATC = AFC + AVC
- = D TVC: D Q
Correct answer: 1C; 2E; 3B; 4A; 5D; 6 A; 7E.
21. The term "marginal cost" means:
a) the maximum that a producer can spend on the production of a given product
b) the amount of expenses in excess of average variable costs
c) the cost of producing an additional unit of output
d) additional costs associated with increased prices for resources
Correct answer: c)
- Establish a correspondence between economic indicator and its definition:
TRTS TR MRMSAS
additional unit of production;
- revenue received from the sale of general
volume of products;
- quantity of product obtained from
using the entire resource volume
- production costs
units of production
- product obtained from use
additional unit of resource
- production costs for the entire volume
products
Correct answer: 1 E; 2 C; 3 A; 4 F; 5 D; 6E
- If the only variable resource is labor and the remaining factors are fixed:
Number of workers (persons) 0 1 2 3 4 56
Product output (pieces)04090 126 150 165 180
The marginal product of the 6th worker will be...
The correct answer is 15 pieces
24. Marginal costs are the costs associated with the production of ... units of production (specify in one word)
Correct answer: additional.
26. Average costs are the costs associated with the production of ... products (specify in one word)
Correct answer: units
27. If long-term average costs decrease as production volume increases, then:
a) there are diseconomies of scale
b) there is a positive effect of scale
c) there are constant economies of scale
d) there is not enough data to answer
Correct answer: b)
28. If the following conditions are given:
production output 0 123 4
total costs 60 140 180 240 420
then the total fixed costs will be...
Correct answer 60
29. If, in producing 10 units of output, total fixed costs are $20 and total variable costs are $40, total average costs will be...
Correct answer: 6.
30. If the volume of a variable resource increases from 3 to 4 units, and the volume of output increases from 90 to 100 units, then the marginal product of the variable resource will be…..
The correct answer is 10 units.
31. If the average product of a variable resource is 15 units, and the value of a variable resource is 4 units, then the total output will be equal to…..
The correct answer is 60 units.
Topic 7: “Perfect competition”
- A typical firm in a perfectly competitive industry:
a) considers the market price of the product as given;
b) can partially, but not completely, control the entry of new firms into the industry;
c) can sell more product only if it reduces the price;
D) sells a product that is unique compared to the products sold by other firms in the industry.
Correct answer: a).
- The equilibrium level of output of a competitive firm is established at:
Correct answer: b).
- Choose the correct statement:
b) in the short run, a competitive firm will not produce if price is greater than variable costs but less than total costs.
c) in the short run, a competitive firm will not produce if the price is below variable costs;
D) in the short run, a competitive firm will not produce if price equals total cost.
Correct answer: c).
- If the market price is lowerAVC, then a typical firm in a competitive industry:
a) has excess profits;
b) operates at break-even;
c) reduces output and increases the price of products;
D) closes and possibly leaves the industry.
Correct answer: d).
- Which 2 of the following descriptions characterize a perfectly competitive market?
a) each seller is completely dependent on the behavior of the other seller
b) firms freely enter and leave the industry;
c) each seller sets his own price that maximizes his profit;
d) sellers cannot influence the price.
Correct answer: b), d).
- If a company operating completely competitive market, will reduce the supply of its products, then this is:
a) will lead to a decrease market price products;
b) will not have any impact on the market;
c) will lead to an increase in the market price of products;
d) will reduce supply and increase the market price of products.
Correct answer: b).
- If the government sets a price on the market that is lower than the equilibrium price, then:
a) the winnings of buyers are usually greater than the losses of sellers;
b) buying the same quantity, buyers will not incur losses;
c) consumer welfare may decline;
d) producers will definitely sell more of the product.
Correct answer: c).
- The most efficient allocation of resources can ensure:
a) monopoly
c) perfect competition
d) oligopoly
d) imperfect competition
Correct answer: c)
- List three consequences of rising economic profits in a competitive market:
a) expansion of production in existing firms;
b) the influx of new firms into the industry;
c) increasing the market price of products;
d) increase in prices for used resources.
Correct answer: a), b), d).
- If firms operating in the market do not make economic profit in the long run, then this is:
a) monopoly
b) perfect competition
c) oligopoly
d) monopsony
Correct answer: b).
- In the short term, under conditions of perfect competition, it is advisable for an enterprise to expand its output if:
D) a competitive firm cannot expand volume.
Correct answer: b).
- Which of the following markets best represents perfect competition?
b) hairdressing services;
c) vegetables;
d) cars;
d) gasoline.
Correct answer: c).
- Marginal Revenue (M.R.) - This:
a) income per unit of good sold;
b) the total amount of proceeds from the sale of a certain amount of goods;
c) an increase in income arising from the sale of one more unit of production
d) maximum possible income enterprises in the current economic situation.
Correct answer: c).
- Competition will be perfect if:
a) there are many small firms on the market producing the same products
b) there are no close substitutes for the product
c) the market is surrounded by barriers
D) the demand curve for a product has a negative slope.
Correct answer: a).
- Average income is:
a) income from rising prices for resources in conditions of expansion of production
b) the condition of maximization of any firm in each market
c) total income divided by the number of products sold
d) income equal to accounting profit
Correct answer: c).
16. The break-even point is:
a) total revenue divided by volume of products sold
b) the volume of production at which total costs are equal to total income or average costs are equal to the price of the product
c) the volume of production at which the price of the product is equal to variable costs
Correct answer: b)
- Freedom of entry and exit from the industry means:
a) there are no legal and economic barriers
b) the creation of new companies is possible only after obtaining permission from the city administration
c) creating a company requires large capital
d) to create a company, it is enough to buy complex technological systems
Correct answer: a)
- Firms operating in conditions of perfect competition in the long run choose the volume of output at which the minimum long-term average cost is equal to price. Is this true? Lf
Correct answer: (1).
- Rule MR= MS = P is:
a) a condition for expanding production and rising prices for resources
b) the profit maximization condition for a perfectly competitive firm
c) the condition for obtaining normal accounting profit
d) the condition for maximizing profit for any company
Correct answer: b)
- The company will close if:
a) price is less than variable costs
b) price is less than fixed costs
c) price equals average cost
d) price is greater than average cost
Correct answer: a)
- In a perfectly competitive enterprise accounting profit- This:
a) part of the firm's internal costs
b) part of the total profit
c) part of normal profit
Correct answer: b)
- Demand curve for a competitive firm's product:
a) has a negative slope
b) horizontal line at a given price
c) a vertical line for a given volume
d) has a positive slope
Correct answer: b)
23 Economic profit of a perfectly competitive firm:
a) cannot take place in the long run
b) equivalent to accounting profit
c) exists whenever total costs exceed total revenue
Correct answer: c)
- Indicate in the correct sequence the changes that occur in a perfectly competitive market in the long run with unprofitable production:
a) there is a shortage of goods on the market
b) prices begin to rise
c) the entry of new firms into the industry.
d) price and average costs equalize
d) individual firms leave the industry.
Correct answer: e), a), b), d), c).
25. Indicate in the correct sequence the changes that occur in a perfectly competitive market in the long run when enterprises in the industry receive economic profit:
a) a decrease in the price of a product or an increase in sales support costs.
b) new competing firms enter the market.
c) decrease in profits.
d) reduction in the influx of competitors.
Correct answer: b), a), c), d).
- Find the volume of products produced by the enterprise.
Correct answer: the enterprise must continue to operate.
- The disadvantages of a perfectly competitive market include:
a) low production volume
V) low level expenses for technical improvement
d) price instability.
Correct answer: c)
- The total costs of a competitive firm with a change in output per unit time change as follows:
Determine the marginal cost of the third unit of production.
Correct answer: 14.
- Economic profit is less than accounting profit by the amount:
a) external costs
b) fixed costs
c) variable costs
d) internal costs
Correct answer: d).
Topic 8. “Market structures of imperfect competition.”
- Imperfect competition differs from perfect competition:
a) production volumes
b) level of technical development
c) the size of an individual enterprise
d) the ability to control or not control prices.
Correct answer: d).
- Monoprolistic competition is:
a) many firms that cannot influence prices
b) several firms, each of which controls a significant market share
c) the only seller of these goods
d) sellers of differentiated products with limited control over price
d) firms colluding to maintain the price of a product
Correct answer: d)
- The most efficient allocation of resources can potentially ensure:
a) monopoly
b) monopolistic competition
c) oligopoly
d) perfect competition
d) imperfect competition
Correct answer: d)
4. A firm under conditions of monopolistic competition maximizes income when:
a) marginal revenue equals total cost
c) marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost
d) marginal revenue equals marginal cost
e) marginal revenue is greater than total cost
Correct answer: d)
5. The market of perfect and monopolistic competition have a common feature:
a) produce differentiated products
b) there are many buyers and sellers operating in the market
c) standard products are produced
d) the behavior of a firm depends on the behavior of its competitors.
Correct answer: b)
6. Long-term equilibrium in the market of monopolistic competition leads to:
a) prices exceeding average costs
b) prices lagging behind average costs
c) the excess of marginal costs over market prices
d) disappearance of economic profit
Correct answer: d)
- The market closest to the market of monopolistic competition is:
a) machines
b) energy
d) milk
Correct answer: c).
- An imperfectly competitive firm maximizes its profits when:
Correct answer: d).
- Product differentiation is:
a) production of similar products that differ only in quality, design, style, etc.
b) production of identical products with different costs
c) production of identical products with different degrees of profitability
Correct answer: a).
- Profit maximization rule (MC = MRor a special case MS = MR= P) applies:
a) only in a perfectly competitive market
b) only in monopolistic competition
c) only in a monopoly market
d) only in oligopoly conditions
d) in all markets.
Correct answer: d)
11. In a perfectly competitive market, firms offer:
a) less diverse products than under monopolistic competition;
b) equally varied goods;
c) more variety of products than under monopolistic competition.
d) setting too high prices for consumer goods.
The correct answer is a. (WITH).
12. In an oligopolistic market there are:
A) a large number of medium and large firms;
b) several large firms
c) one company
d) many small firms
The correct answer is b. (P)
13. common feature oligopoly and perfect competition
a) there are many small firms on the market
b) firms can influence prices
c) differentiated products are sold
Correct answer: a)
14.Common features of oligopoly and monopolistic competition market:
a) there are no barriers to entry into the industry
b) the behavior of firms is determined by the behavior of competitors
c) there are a small number of sellers
d) firms are able to influence prices
Correct answer: d)
- Oligopoly is characteristic of markets:
a) clothes
b) agricultural products
c) cars
Correct answer: c).
- The peculiarity of oligopoly is:
a) the presence of monopoly power in one of the firms
b) lack of product differentiation
c) free entry into the industry
d) the response of firms to each other's behavior
Correct answer: d)
- Price leadership means focusing on a company that
a) produces the cheapest products
b) uses technical innovations
c) produces original products
d) the largest and most experienced in this production
Correct answer: d)
18. A natural monopoly is:
a) an industry in which a product can be produced by one firm at lower average costs than if it were produced by more than one firm;
b) an industry in which the state regulates prices and volume of production;
c) a company that has driven out all its competitors from the market due to the better quality of its products.
The correct answer is a. (WITH)
19. An example of a natural monopoly is:
a) OPEC - international oil cartel;
b) Savings Bank of the Russian Federation;
c) Publishing house "Izvestia";
d) Moscow metro.
The correct answer is d. (WITH)
20. Price discrimination is:
a) Differences in remuneration by nationality or gender;
b) Selling the same products at different prices to different groups of buyers at the same costs;
c)Increasing the price of a higher quality product.
The correct answer is b. (WITH)
21. A profit-maximizing monopolist will increase output if:
a) Average costs fall;
c) Marginal revenue is higher than marginal cost;
d) Marginal revenue equals variable cost.
The correct answer is s. (WITH)
22. To get maximum profit, the monopolist must choose a volume of output at which:
a) Marginal cost is equal to the price of production;
b) Marginal cost equals total cost;
c) Marginal revenue equals marginal cost;
d) Average cost equals the price of the product.
The correct answer is s. (WITH)
23. Cost-plus pricing is based on:
a) average variable costs plus average profit
b) average fixed costs plus average profit
c) average variable costs plus normal profit
d) average total costs plus average profit
Correct answer: d).
24. Find a correspondence between the type of market structures and the number of firms in the industry:
Correct answer: 1-s; 2-b; 3-c; 4-d. (WITH)
25. There is a single buyer of coal mining equipment on the market. This type of market is characterized as:
a) monopoly;
b) monopsony;
c) oligopoly.
Correct answer: b). (WITH)
- A monopolist, as opposed to a competitive firm
a) can set any price for his product
b) maximizes profit when marginal revenue and marginal cost are equal
c) can produce and sell any volume of products
D) can choose a combination of price and output.
Correct answer: d)
- To obtain maximum profit, the monopolist must choose a volume of output at which:
a) marginal cost equals the price of the product
b) marginal cost equals total cost
c) marginal revenue equals marginal cost
d) marginal revenue equals total cost
Correct answer: c)
28. If a firm, under conditions of imperfect competition, produces a volume of output at which marginal revenue is greater than marginal costs, then to increase profits it should:
a) increase the volume of production;
b) reduce the volume of production;
c) leave output unchanged.
The correct answer is a. (WITH)
29.Unlike a competitive firm, a monopoly strives to:
a) produce more products and set the price higher
b) produce less products and increase the price
c) change the price depending on production volume and demand
d) adapt to the price
Correct answer: c).
- Regulation natural monopolies pursues all of the following values, except:
a) price restrictions
b) increase in production volume
c) establishing the amount of monopoly excess profit
d) setting prices at the level of average costs
Correct answer: c)
Topic 9. Factors of production market
- A student has $100 and decides whether to save it or spend it. If he puts the money in the bank, in a year he will receive $112. Inflation is 14% per year. IN in this case the real interest rate will be:
d) will be equal to inflation;
e) cannot be determined based on available information
The correct answer is b).
- Loan interest is:
a) payment for a material resource
b) investment efficiency indicator
c) the price paid to the owner of capital for the temporary use of his funds
d) excess profit
d) interest on deposits
Correct answer: c)
- A competitive firm seeking to maximize profits should hire additional workers only if:
A) total revenues lower overall costs;
b) the marginal product of labor in monetary terms is less than the wage rate;
c) the value of the marginal product in monetary terms decreases;
d) the value of the marginal product in monetary terms increases;
e) the marginal product in monetary terms exceeds the wage rate.
The correct answer is d).
- When a competitive firm reaches a level of production at which the monetary value of the marginal product of each resource equals the price of that resource, then it:
a) produces a product at minimal cost, but does not necessarily receive maximum profit;
b) receives maximum profit, but does not necessarily produce products at minimum costs;
c) receives maximum profit at minimum production costs;
d) does not necessarily receive the maximum profit or achieve the minimum level of costs;
The correct answer is c).
5. Capital and labor are interchangeable. If the price of capital rises, then the labor demand curve:
a) moves to the right
b) moves to the left
c) stays in place
d) there is not enough information to answer
Correct answer: a).
6.Rent valuation of land is:
a) land rental price;
b) the total income received from the use of the service of this asset by its owner;
c) the price at which land plot sold on the market;
The correct answer is a).
7. When wages increase, the following will happen:
a) reduction in employment if the demand for labor is elastic;
b) a reduction in employment if the demand for labor is completely inelastic;
c) an increase in employment if the demand for labor is elastic;
d) an increase in employment if the demand for labor is inelastic;
e) employment will not change if the demand for labor is elastic
The correct answer is a)
8. In the first year the price level does not change, the nominal interest rate is 6% per year. In the second year, the inflation rate was 3%. If the real interest rate in the second year remains unchanged, then the nominal interest rate in the second year must:
a) grow by 9%;
b) grow by 3%;
c) will decrease by 3%;
d) grow by 6%;
d) remain unchanged at 6%.
The correct answer is b).
- Which of the following definitions represents a productive economic resource:
a) money capital;
b) means of production;
c) percentage;
d) profit;
d) consumer goods.
The correct answer is b).
- Ground rent will increase, other things being equal, if:
a) the price of land decreases;
b) demand for land is growing;
c) demand for land is decreasing;
d) the supply of land is increasing;
e) under none of these conditions.
The correct answer is b)
- Land supply:
a) absolutely inelastic;
b) characterized by unit elasticity;
c) absolutely elastic;
d) elastic;
d) inelastic.
The correct answer is a)
- The company plans to take out a bank loan for the construction of a new enterprise. The annual interest rate is 18%. The expected rate of return is set at 20%. Under these conditions, the company:
a) will not build a new enterprise;
b) will build a new enterprise;
c) despite the loss, decides to build an enterprise;
d) will not be able to make decisions based on the available information;
d) such a situation cannot occur.
The correct answer is b)
- A positive decision on the construction of a bridge, which will serve for 200 years and generate a profit of 10%, will be made provided that the interest rate on the loan for construction is:
a) no more than 2%;
b) no more than 20%;
c) 10% or less;
d) 10% or more;
e) there is no information to make a decision.
The correct answer is c)
- An increase in the interest rate, other things being equal, will lead to:
a) investment growth
b) reduction in the supply of loan capital
c) reduction in investment
d) an increase in demand for borrowed funds
e) will not affect the amount of investment.
Correct answer: c)
- The real interest rate is:
a) the equilibrium interest rate
b) nominal interest rate
c) nominal rate minus inflation rate
d) nominal rate minus equilibrium rate
e) nominal rate plus inflation percentage
Correct answer: c)
- Marginal product of a factor of production in monetary terms:
a) represents the price of the last unit of production
b) equal to the increase in revenue when using an additional unit of production factor
c) equal to the change in production volume when used additional factor production
d) this is the average price of the product
Correct answer: b)
- Monopsony in the labor market is:
a) an association of workers that has the right to negotiate with employers
b) the only buyer work force in this market
c) an organization engaged in advanced training of employees
d) the only manufacturer of any product
Correct answer: b)
- Marginal labor costs:
a) represent an increase in variable costs with an increase in the volume of output per unit;
b) represent an increase in fixed costs with an increase in the volume of output per unit;
c) all additional production costs
d) represent an increase in total labor costs when hiring an additional worker;
The correct answer is d)
- Interest rate in the country 20%. The investor is offered to invest 100,000 rubles. for a period of two years. What minimum annual profit must he be promised in order for him to agree:
Correct answer: b)
20. If the supply of a factor of production is completely inelastic, then on the graph it is:
a) descending line
b) horizontal line
c) vertical line
d) rising line
Correct answer: c)
- If the state establishes minimum wage higher than the equilibrium wage rate, then in the labor market:
a) there will be a labor shortage
b) there will be a surplus of labor
c) the demand for labor will increase
D) labor supply will decrease.
Correct answer: b)
- The value of land rent will decrease if the demand curve for land shifts to the right. Is this true?
The correct answer is b)
- Demand for land:
a) inelastic
b) elastic
c) absolutely inelastic
d) absolutely elastic
Correct answer: b)
- Establish a correspondence between economic category and its definition:
Economic Real Nominal
rent interest rate interest rate
1. Interest rate from
adjusted for inflation
2. Price for using land
3. Interest rate expressed
V monetary units By
current rate
Correct answer: 1B; 2A; 3B
- Land supply:
a) absolutely inelastic
b) absolutely elastic
c) has unit elasticity
Correct answer: a)
- The “earth” factor means:
a) agricultural land
b) the entire territory of the earth
c) cultivated land areas
d) all the earth, its subsoil and all natural resources on earth
Correct answer: d).
- Establishing current discounted value is a procedure that allows:
a) eliminate the influence of inflation on the assessment of future income
b) establish the present value of future income
c) establish the amount of bank interest in a given period
d) choose the best investment project
Correct answer: b).
- The graph of the marginal return of any resource looks like ... a curve (specify in one word)
Correct answer: downward
- The theory of "human capital":
a) explains the exploitation of less skilled workers by more skilled ones
b) explains the differences in wages different volumes of investment in human capital
If the CPRs, in your opinion, are of poor quality, or you have already seen this work, please let us know.